Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010

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Computer General Awareness For Bank PO 2010
1. In a survey of more than 500 companies and government agencies, ____________ percent detected computer security breaches.
A. 20
B. 75
C. 85
D. 99
Answer: C
2. The survey showed that these businesses lost more than ____________ due to security breaches.
A. $100,000 each
B. $377 million
C. five employees each
D. $1 million
Answer: B
3. The typical computer criminal is a(n):
A. young hacker.
B. trusted employee with no criminal record.
C. trusted employee with a long, but unknown criminal record.
D. overseas young cracker.
Answer: B
4. The majority of computer crimes are committed by:
A. hackers.
B. insiders.
C. overseas criminals.
D. young teenage computer geniuses.
Answer: B
5. The common name for the crime of stealing passwords is:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: C Reference: Theft by Computer
6. Collecting personal information and effectively posing as another individual is known as the crime of:
A. spooling.
B. identity theft.
C. spoofing.
D. hacking.
Answer: B
7. Malicious software is known as:
A. badware.
B. malware.
C. maliciousware.
D. illegalware.
Answer: B
8. A program that performs a useful task while simultaneously allowing destructive acts is a:
A. worm.
B. Trojan horse.
C. virus.
D. macro virus.
Answer: B Moderate
9. An intentionally disruptive program that spreads from program to program or from disk to disk is known as a:
A. Trojan horse.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. time-related bomb sequence.
Answer: B
10. In 1999, the Melissa virus was a widely publicized:
A. e-mail virus.
B. macro virus.
C. Trojan horse.
D. Time bomb.
Answer: A
11. What type of virus uses computer hosts to reproduce itself?
A. Time bomb
B. Worm
C. Melissa virus
D. Macro virus
Answer: B

12. The thing that eventually terminates a worm virus is a lack of:
A. memory or disk space.
B. time.
C. CD drive space.
D. CD-RW.
Answer: A
13. When a logic bomb is activated by a time-related event, it is known as a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
14. A logic bomb that was created to erupt on Michelangelo’s birthday is an example of a:
A. time-related bomb sequence.
B. virus.
C. time bomb.
D. Trojan horse.
Answer: C
15. What is the name of an application program that gathers user information and sends it to someone through the Internet?
A. A virus
B. Spybot
C. Logic bomb
D. Security patch
Answer: B

16. Standardization of Microsoft programs and the Windows operating system has made the spread of viruses:
A. more complicated.
B. more difficult.
C. easier.
D. slower.
Answer: C
17. HTML viruses infect:
A. your computer.
B. a Web page in the HTML code.
C. both a Web page and the computer that is viewing it.
D. No
18. Software programs that close potential security breaches in an operating system are known as:
A. security breach fixes.
B. refresh patches.
C. security repairs.
D. security patches.
Answer: D
19. When customers of a Web site are unable to access it due to a bombardment of fake traffic, it is known as:
A. a virus.
B. a Trojan horse.
C. cracking.
D. a denial of service attack.
Answer: D
20. ___________ is the measurement of things such as fingerprints and retinal scans used for security access.
A. Biometrics
B. Biomeasurement
C. Computer security
D. Smart weapon machinery
Answer: A
21. What is the most common tool used to restrict access to a computer system?
A. User logins
B. Passwords
C. Computer keys
D. Access-control software
Answer: B
22. The most common passwords in the U.S. or Britain include all EXCEPT:
A. love.
B. Fred.
C. God.
D. 123.
Answer: D
23. Hardware or software designed to guard against unauthorized access to a computer network is known as a(n):
A. hacker-proof program.
B. firewall.
C. hacker-resistant server.
D. encryption safe wall.
Answer: B
24. The scrambling of code is known as:
A. encryption.
B. a firewall.
C. scrambling.
D. password-proofing.
Answer: A
25. If you want to secure a message, use a(n):
A. cryptology source.
B. encryption key.
C. encryption software package.
D. cryptosystem.
Answer: D Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
26. To prevent the loss of data during power failures, use a(n):
A. encryption program.
B. surge protector.
C. firewall.
D. UPS.
Answer: D
27. A(n) ____________ can shield electronic equipment from power spikes.
A. encryption program
B. surge protector
C. firewall
D. UPS
Answer: B
28. All of these are suggestions for safe computing EXCEPT:
A. don’t borrow disks from other people.
B. open all e-mail messages but open them slowly.
C. download shareware and freeware with caution.
D. disinfect your system.
Answer: B
29. Freeware ___________ encrypts data.
A. encryption
B. firewall software
C. PGP
D. private and public keys
Answer: C
30. ____________ is defined as any crime completed through the use of computer technology.
A. Computer forensics
B. Computer crime
C. Hacking
D. Cracking
Answer: B
31. Most computer systems rely solely on ___________ for authentication.
A. logins
B. passwords
C. encryption
D. lock and key
Answer: B
32. Creating strong computer security to prevent computer crime usually simultaneously helps protect :
A. privacy rights.
B. personal ethics.
C. the number of cookies downloaded to your personal computer.
D. personal space.
Answer: A
33. Over ___________ was spent by businesses and government to repair problems in regard to Y2K.
A. 20 million dollars
B. 100 million dollars
C. 1 billion dollars
D. 100 billion dollars
Answer: D
34. What is a complex system that takes on nearly complete responsibility for a task eliminating the need for people, verification, or decision making?
A. Autonomous system
B. Missile defense auto-system
C. Smart weapon
D. Independent system
Answer: D
35. Security procedures can:
A. will eliminate all computer security risk.
B. reduce but not eliminate risks.
C. are prohibitively expensive.
D. are inaccessible for the average home user.
Answer: B
Fill in the Blank:

36. The field of computer ____________ uses special software to scan hard drives of potential criminal suspects.
Answer: forensics Reference: Online Outlaws: Computer Crime Difficulty: Challenging
37. Computer ____________ often goes unreported because businesses fear negative publicity.
Answer: crime
38. ____________ connections are the most frequent point of attack for Internet commerce.
Answer: Internet
39. ____________ is the most common form of computer crime.
Answer: Theft
40. A survey by eMarketer.com found that ____________ are the most often cited online fraud cases.
Answer: online auctions Reference: Identity Theft
41. Theft of computers is most common for PDAs and ____________ computers.
Answer: notebook
42. When you use a disk in several different computers within the same day, you are taking the chance of contracting a(n) ____________.
Answer: virus Reference: Viruses Difficulty: Easy
43. A(n) ____________ attaches itself to documents that contain embedded programs that automate tasks.
Answer: macro virus
44. Both viruses and ____________ use computer hosts to replicate.
Answer: worms
45. ____________ programs search for and eliminate viruses.
Answer: Antivirus
46. A security patch is a software program that closes possible security breaches in the operating system. The cost to the consumer is ____________.
Answer: nothing or free
47. ____________ was once the word used for malicious computer wizardry.
Answer: Hackers or hacking
48. ____________ refers to electronic trespassing or criminal hacking.
Answer: Cracking
49. DoS stands for ___________.
Answer: denial of service
50. DDoS stands for ___________.
Answer: distributed denial of service
51. ____________ hijack Web pages and redirect users to other sites.
Answer: Webjackers
52. ___________ software monitors and records computer transactions.
Answer: Audit-control
53. Each individual who uses a public key cryptosystem has ___________ keys.
Answer: two Reference: How It Works: 10.2 Cryptography
54. PGP stands for ___________.
Answer: Pretty Good Privacy
55. Most operating systems, including Windows XP, assign each user a unique ___________.
Answer: user identifier or user ID
56. It should now be common knowledge that users should not open ___________ from e-mail recipients that the user does not know.
Answer: attachments
Matching:

57. Match the acts and centers with their purposes:
I. Computer Fraud and Abuse Act A. created by Attorney General Janet Reno in 1998
II. USA Patriot Act B. defines what kinds of communications are legal online
III. Digital Millennium Copyright Act C. created in 2001 as a response to the terrorist attacks of September 11, 2001
IV. Telecommunications Act of 1996 D. provides instant information on crimes and criminals
V. Communications Decency Act E. declared unconstitutional by the Supreme Court
VI. National Infrastructure Protection Center F. created as a result of the first headline-making worm
VII. National Crime Information Center G. used to arrest a student for writing to crack an Adobe product
Answers: F, C, G, B, E, A, D

58. Match the following rules of thumb about safe computing with the proper descriptions:
I. share with care A. be aware of e-mail from what appear to be legitimate companies
II. handle e-mail carefully B. don’t choose a dictionary word
III. disinfect regularly C. keep your disks in your own computer
IV. take your password seriously D. copy, copy, copy
V. if it’s important, back it up E. encrypt
VI. sensitive info over the Internet? F. use antivirus software
Answers: C, A, F, B, D, E

RRB Kolkata Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

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 RRB Kolkata  Commercial Apprentice Exam 2009

(Held on 7th june 2009)

Reasoning

Directions—(Q. 1-5)
Facing towards centre, A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting in a circle.
F is third from B’s right which is third from H’s right.
A is third from H’s left C is fourth from A’s left
E is third from D’s right, Which is not A’s neighbour.
1. In which of the following pairs, second one is immediately right to the first one ?
(A)FA
(B) GB
(C)BE
(D) None of these

2. Who is second to the D’s left?
(A)A
(B)G
(C)DG
(D) Data insufficient

3. Who is third to the G’s left?
(A)F
(B)C
(C)H
(D)D

4.Who is fourth to the C’s left?
(A)A
(B)E
(C)F
(D) Data insufficient
5. What is the place of ‘B’ with reference to D ?
(I) Fourth-Right
(II)Fourth-Left
(III)Fifth-Left
(IV)Fifth-Right
(A) Only I
(B) Only I and II
(C) Only II
(D) Only Ill and IV

English language

Directions—(Q 6-8) Which of the following is correctly spelt?
6.
(A)Appologise
(B) Apologise
(C)Appalogise
(D) Apollogise
7.
(A) Destinguishably
(B) Distenguishably
(C) Distinguishably
(D) Disifinguishably
8.
(A) Assignment
(B) Asignment
(C) Assignmant
(D) Acinement

Directions—(Q. 9 and 10) Choose the one which best expresses the same sentence in lndirect/Direct Speech
9. I don’t know the way. Do you ? he asked—
(A) He asked me if I knew the way which he didn’t.
(B) He said that he didn’t know the way and asked me I did.
(C) He told that he was not knowing the way, but wondered if knew.
(D) He said that he didn’t know the way and did I know it.
10. Animals which feed on grass are called —
(A) Cannibals
(B) Omnivorous
(C) Herbivorous
(D) Carnivorous

 

Directions—(Q. 11—15) Choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given capital.
11. CONSEQUENCE
(A)Result
(B) End
(C)Proof
(D) Conclusion
12. DISCLOSE
(A) Express
(B) Reveal
(C)Report
(D) Blackmail

13.ASSURANCE
(A) Suspicion
(B) Promise
(C) Suggestion
(D) Blackmail

14. ACCESS
(A) Entry
(B) Permission
(C) Nearness
(D) Exit
7. ANXIOUS
(A) Serious
(B) Eager
(C) Worried
(D) Forced

Maths/physics

16. 1 kg mass has a potential energy of 1 joule relative to the ground when it is at a height of?

(A) 0.102 m
(B) 1 m
(C)9.8m
(D) 32m
17. A particle moves in a circle of radius r. In half the period of revolution, its displacement ,distance covered are—
(A) 2r,?r
(B) r?2, ?r
(C) 2?,?r
(D)r,?r

18. A fort has provisions for 80 days. If after 15 days 500 men strengthen them and the food lasts 40 days thereafter, how many men were there in the fort?
(A)3,500
(8) 4,000
(C)6,000
(D) 10,000
19. The ratio of marks obtained by Vinod and Vasu is 6: 5. If the combined average of their percentage is 68.75 and their sum of the marks is 275, the total marks for which exam was conducted
is?
(A) 150
(B) 200
(C) 400
(D) 500

20. A zookeeper counted the heads of the animals in a zoo and found it to be 80. When he counted the legs of the animals he found it to be 260. If the zoo had either pigeons or horses, how many horses were there in the zoo?
(A)40
(B) 30
(C)50
(D) 60
21. A Railway halt ticket costs half the full fare and the reservation charge is the same on half ticket on full ticket. One reserved first class ticket from Chennai to Trivandrum costs Rs, 216 and one full reserved and one-half reserved first class tickets cost As. 327. What is the basic first class full fare and what is the reservation charge?
(A) Rs 105 and Rs.6
(B) As. 216 and Rs. 12
(C) Rs. 210 and Rs. 12
(D) Rs 210and Rs.6
22. If each child is given 10 sweets, there are 3 sweets left over. But if each is given 11, then the number of sweet is 4 less. Find the number of sweets—
(A)37
(B) 73
(C)75
(D) 57
23. The product of the digits of a two digit number is 24. If its unit’s exceeds twice its ten’s digit by 2, find the number?
(A) 46
(B) 64
(C) 38
(D) 21

24. The number of triangles possible in a regular octagon is?
(A)326
(B) 120
(C)56
(D) 28
25. A stairway 10 ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the lop of the stairway?
(A)30 ft.
(B) 33ft.
(C)10 ft.
(D) 29ft.
26. If the sum of the interior angles of a regular polygon measures up to 1440 degrees, how many sides does the polygon have?
(A)10
(B) 8
(C)12
(D) 9
27. If the diagonal and the area of a rectangle are 25 m and 168 vu what is the length of the rectangle?
(A)17m
(B) 31m
(C)12m
(D) 24m

28. A force F is applied on a square plate of side L. If the percentage error in the determination of L is 2% and that of F is 4%, the maximum permissible error in
pressure is?
(A)2%
(B) 4%
(C)6%
(D) 8%
29. Two forces, equal in magnitude, have a resultant with its magnitude equal to either. The angle between them is?
(A)45°
(B) 60°
(C)90°
(D) 120°

30. A trader increases the cost of an article by 10% and gives 5% discount. Find his profit or loss
(A) 10% profit
(B) 10% loss
(C) 4.5% loss
(D) 4.5% profit

31. A student secured 210 marks in an examination and failed by 21 marks. If the pass marks are 33%
find the maximum marks—
(A)700
(B) 610
(C)800
(D) 720
32. If simple interest on Rs. 600 for 4 years and on Rs. 600 for 2 years, combined together is Rs. 180, find the rate of interest?
(A) 5.5%
(B) 5%
(C) 6%
(D) 4%
33. A group of labour wished to complete the work in 25 days. But 10 labourers did not turn-up and the work got completed in 35 days.
Find the approximate number of labourers in the beginning?
(A)30
(B) 25
(C)35
(D) 20
34. A clock shows 6 hrs. 40 min. What time will the plane mirror, kept before it, show?
(A) 3:20 hrs.
(B) 6:20 hrs.
(C) 4:20 hrs
(D) 9:20 hrs
35. In a party 15 people shake their hands with each other. How many times did the hand-shake take place?
(A) 165
(B) 120
(C) 135
(D) 105

36. A is father of B, who is sister of C, but C is neither B’s sister, nor A’s daughter. D is mother of B and C, how C is related to D?
(A) Nephew
(B) Son
(C)Niece
(D) Daughter
37. The selling price of a pen is Rs.16. If the shopkeeper bears the per cent loss equal to its cost price find out its cost price?
(A)Rs. 20
(B) Rs. 25
(C)Rs.35
(D) Rs.30
38. A train 160 m long crosses 160 m long platform in 16 seconds.The speed of the train is?
(A)72 km/h
(B) 75 km/h
(C)45 km/h
(D) 60 km/h

39. In a class of 30 students and 2 teachers, the students got sweets worth 20% of the total number of students and teacher got sweets worth 30% of the total number of students.
Find the total quantity of the sweets
(A)208
(B) 178
(C)188
(D) None of these

40. A man takes 8 minutes to type a page. If 1710 pages are to be typed in the afternoon between 1 O’clock to 2 O’ clock, how many men are required ?
(A)249
(B) 221
(C)256
(D) None of these

Ans:
1:D  2:A  3:B  4:A  5:B   6:B
7:C  8:A  9:B  10:C  11:A  12:B 
13:B  14:A  15:B  16:A  17:A  18:B
19:B  20:C  21:D  22::B  23:C  24:C
25:D  26:A  27:D  28:D  29:D  30:D
31:A  32:B  33:C  34:A  35:D   36:B
37:A  38:A  39:D  40:D 228 persons

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2008-09

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Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2008-09

2008
● S.S.C. Tax Assistant Examination, 2008 (December 14)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Officers Cadre and Non-Teaching Posts Examination (December 14)
● Bank of Baroda Agriculture Officers Exam. (December 14)
● C.S.I.R.-U.G.C. NET (December 21)
● Rashtriya Military School Common Entrance Test (Class VI) (December 21)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Probationary Officers Examination (December 21)
● RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (December 21)
● Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board Junior Engineer Examination (December 21)
● UGC NET/JRF Exam., 2008 (December 28)
● Delhi Subordinate Services Selection Board Assistant Engineers Examination (December 28)

2009
● Sainik School Entrance Exam., 2009-10 (Class VI & IX) (January 4)
● P.N.B. Deputy Manager (Economics) and Agriculture Officers Examination (January 4)
● Madhya Pradesh PSC State Service (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (January 11)
● Rajasthan B.S.N.L. Telecommunication Technical Assistant Recruitment Test [Himachal Pradesh, Assam, Madhya Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh (West)] (January 11)
● Oriental Bank of Commerce Clerical Cadre Recruitment Test (January 18)
● Rajasthan PSC Assistant Jailor Exam., 2008 (January)
● A.F.M.C. Poona B. Sc. (Nursing)/General Nursing and Midwifery (GNM) Exam., 2009 (January /February)
● Chhattisgarh PSC State Service (Pre.) Exam., 2008 (February 1)
● IGNOU OPENMAT Entrance Test for Management (February 1)
● Rajasthan Judicial Service Competitive Exam., 2008 (February 7-8)
● Jawahar Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class VI) (February 8)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan PGT Entrance Test (February 14) (Closing Date : 15 Dec., 2008)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan TGT Entrance Test (February 15) (Closing Date : 15 Dec., 2008)
● UPSC Combined Defence Services Exam. (I), 2009 (February 15)
● Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan Primary Teachers Recruitment Test (February 16) (Closing Date : 15 Dec., 2008)
● R.P.S.C. Teachers Grade-II Competitive Examination, 2008 (February)
● RPSC Physical Training Instructor (Grade-II & III) Competitive Exam., 2008 (For SC/ST) (February)
● Associate Banks of State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Recruitment Test (March 1) (Online Closing Date : 31 Dec., 2008)
● Rajasthan PSC Teacher Grade II (Sanskrit Education) Competitive Exam., 2008 (March)
● CBSE All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental Entrance Exam., 2009 (April 5)
● I.I.T. Joint Entrance Exam., 2009 (April 12) (Online Closing Date : 24 Dec., 2008)
● UPSC National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Examination (I), 2009 (April 19)
● ICAR Agriculture Research Service/National Eligibility Test, 2009 (April 26)
● All India Engineering Entrance Examination, 2009 (April 26) (Closing Date : 10 Jan., 2009)
● NCERT National Talent Search Exam., 2009 (Stage-II) (For Class VIII) (May 10)
● CBSE All India Pre-Medical/Pre-Dental (Main) Exam., 2009 (May 10)
● Civil Services Preliminary Examination, 2009 (May 17)

ANDHRA BANK PROBATIONARY OFFICER’S 2008 SOLVED PAPER (HELD ON 14-09-2008)

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Entrance Exam Dates

Bank Po Exams

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UPSC IAS Syllabus

 

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Andhra Bank Probationary Officer’s Exam., 2008
 

(Held on 14-09-2008)
 

General Awareness

 

1. Who amongst the following does not belong to political party which is normally referred as left front?
(A) Prakash Karat
(B) A.B.Bardhan
(C) D.Raju
(D) T.J.Chandrachoodan
(E) M.Veerappa Moily
Ans (E) M.Veerappa Moily is a congress leader.
2. Sujat and Balsara villages were in news recently as breach in main Narmada Canal made them flooded. Both these villages are in which of the following States?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Rajasthan
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
3. As per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) the Indian Economy will grow at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 8.5%
(E) None of these
Ans (C)
4. Which of the following is NOT one of the recommendations of the committee setup on Financial Sector Reforms under the Chairmanship of Raghuram G.Rajan ?
(1) Give more freedoms to banks to setup branches and ATMS anywhere
(2) Setup an office of financial ombudsmen
(3) All deposits taking institutions should be free from the supervision of the RBI
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (A)
5. The Govt.  of which of the following States has formed a Fisherman Debt Commission and a moratorium has been placed on proceedings relating to all debts incured by poor fisherman from banks and cooperatives ?
(A) West Bengal
(B) Keral
(C) Orissa
(D) Karnataka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
6. Federal Reserves is the Central Bank of ___
(A) Britain
(B) U.S.A.
(C) Japan
(D) Canada
(E) China
Ans (B)
7. Which of the following was the issue over which one section of the UPA withdrew its support and Union Govt. headed by Dr. Man Mohan Singh was required to prove its majority in the Lok Sabha ?
(1) Inflation , which was on a rise consistently for some time
(2) Reservations of Gurjarrs in Govt. jobs
(3) Nuclear deal with USA
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 & 2
(E) Only 2 & 3
Ans (C)
8. As a gesture to promote denuclearization and also to end nuclear arms programme the cooling tower of a nuclear complex situated in “Youngbyon” was demolished recently. This nuclear complex is in which of the following countries ?
(A) South Korea
(B) Iran
(C) China
(D) North Korea
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
9. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) keeps on modifying various rates / ratios to keep the flow of liquidity in the market in a balanced situation . Which of the following rates/ratios/indexes is NOT directly controlled by the RBI ?
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
(B) Bank Rate
(C) Repo Rate
(D) Reserve Repo Rate
(E) Wholesale Price Index (WPI)
Ans (E)
10. China has signed an agreement with which of the following countries, which will help both the parties to make the East China Sea “a sea of peace, coperation and friendship” ?
(A) North Korea
(B) South Korea
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
(E) All of these
Ans (C)
11. The former President of which of the following countries has taken over as the Prime Minister of the nation in May 2008 ?
(A) Venezuela
(B) Russia
(C) Uganda
(D) Tanzania
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
12. Which of the following companies of Indian origin has been placed amongst the World’s seven Best Firms in Financial Sector ?
(A) IDBI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Bajaj Capitals
(D) ICICI Bank
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
13. Michel Sleiman has taken over as the president of ____
(A) Lebanon
(B) Cuba
(C) Yemen
(D) Zambia
(E) Turkey
Ans (A)
14. Which of the following is/are true about the “Pradhan Mantri Adarsh Gram Yojana” to be launched in the near future ?
(1) This scheme is to develop those villages where SC/ST population is in prominence
(2) About 70,000 villages are identified for the same
(3) A special fund of Rs.7,000 Crore is setup for the scheme
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
15. Which of the following countries had decided to come out of the membership of OPEC ?
(A) Iran
(B) Indonesia
(C) Kuwait
(D) Saudi Arabia
(E) None Of these
Ans (B)
16. Many Banks have adopted / launched “Core Banking Solution (CBS)” .Core Banking Solution is _______
(A) a marketing strategy adopted by the Banks
(B) a new type of ATM useful for rural population
(C) a delivery channel for quick and fast delivery
(D) a new product launched to help senior citizens only as they are not able to visit branches / ATMs frequently
(E) None of these
Ans (C) 
17. As per the figures released recently, the rate of growth of agriculture during 2007-08 has been at the level of approximately ______
(A) 2.5 %
(B) 3 %
(C) 4.5 %
(D) 5 %
(E) 6.33 %
Ans (C)
18. The import of which of the following has raised the Current Account Deficit of India by about 77 % ?
(A) Oil
(B) Gas
(C) Sugar
(D) Foodgrain
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
19. The National e- Governance plan was launched by the Govt. of India in the year 2006 with which of the following intentions/objectives ?
(1) To provide qualitative service of Govt. business to the citizens of India
(2) To promote IT sector in India so that trained IT personnel do not go out of the country for jobs
(3) To keep a vigil on the business transaction of Indian population to avoid illegal transactions
(A) Only 1
(B) only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2 & 3
(E) None of these
Ans (A)
20. As per the figure released recently what was the per capita income at Current Price in the year 2007-08 in India? About ____
(A) Rs. 20,000/-
(B) Rs. 25,000/-
(C) Rs. 23,000/-
(D) Rs. 33,000/-
(E) Rs. 48,000/-
Ans (D)
21. Ana Ivanovic won the “French Open Women’s Singles” of Lawn Tennis after defeating _______
(A) Katrina Srebtnik
(B) Dinara Safina
(C) Virginia Ruano Pascual
(D) Victoria Azarenka
(E) None of these
Ans (B)
22. The World Environment Day is celebrated on which of the following days?
(A) 5TH October
(B) 5TH August
(C) 5TH July
(D) 5TH June
(E) None of these
Ans (D)
23. Who amongst the following is included in the list of “Biggest Brains in Business”?
(A) L. N. Mittal
(B) Anil Ambani
(C) Kumar Mangalam Birla
(D) Mukesh Ambani
(E) Ratan Tata
Ans (A)
24. Which of the following cannot be called as a value Added service offered by a Bank?
(A) Special accounts for poor sections of the society
(B) Accident insurance cover
(C) Instant Credits of Outstation Cheques
(D) Free cheque book
(E) All are value Added services
Ans (D)

Exam Question Paper

Entrance Exam Dates

Bank Po Exams

UPSC Study Material

UPSC IAS Syllabus

Forthcomming Examination 2008 -09

SBI PO EXAM PAPER OF 27-08-2008 WILL BE POST VERY SOON ON :

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Forthcomming Examination 2008 -09

  

SSC (Staff Selection Commission) Examination

Schedule

Schedule for year 2008 is as under :-

TENTATIVE OPEN COMPETITIVE EXAMINATION PROGRAMME, 2008 as on 02-05-2008
 

S.No. Name of Examination Category of posts to be filled up in various Cadres Date of advertise-ment Closing Date Date of Examination
1. Combined (Matric Level) Prelim. Exam., 2008. LDCs & Steno Grade ‘D’ 17.11..2007 14.12.2007 30.03.2008(Sunday)
2. Junior Engineer (Civil & Electrical) Examination, 2008. Junior Engineer in C.P.W.D. 22.12.2007 18.01.2008 27.04.2008(Sunday)
3. Junior Translator (CSOLS) Examination, 2008 Jr. Hindi Translator (CSLOS)     CANCELLED
4. Investigator Examination, 2008 Investigator in Deptt. Of Statistics. 26.01.2008 29.02.2008 DEFERRED
5. Statistical Investigator Gr-III & Compiler Examination, 2008 Statistical Investigator Gr-III & Compiler in RPG 15.03.2008 11.04.2008 15.06.2008(Sunday)
6. Combined (Graduate Level) Preliminary Examination, 2008 Assistants in CSS, SIs in CBI, Inspectors in CBEC & CBDT etc., Inspector of Post in Deptt. of Post and Divisional Accountants, Junior Accountants, Auditors, UDCs etc. in Central Govt. Offices. 05.04.2008
  
02.05.2008 27.07.2008(Sunday)
7. Data Entry Operator Examination, 2008 D.E.O in O/o C&AG 03.05.2008 06.06.2008 31.08.2008(Sunday)
8 SO (Commercial Audit) Examination, 2008 Section Officer (Commercial) in O/O CAG     CANCELLED
9 Combined Matric Level (Main) Examination, 2008 LDC,Steno Gr. ‘D’ and Steno gr. ‘C’ NO SEPARATE NOTICE TO BE PUBLISHED FOR THE MAIN   27.09.2008Saturday

&

28.09.2008

10. CPO’s Sub-Inspectors Examination, 2008 SIs in BSF, CRPF, ITBP and CISF 07.06.2008 04.07.2008 09.11. 2008(Sunday)
11. SO (Audit) Examination, 2006. Section Officer
(Audit)
05.07.2008 08.08.2008 30.11.08(Sunday)
12. Tax Assistant Examination, 2008 Tax Assistant in CBDT & CBEC 09.08.2008 11.09.2008 14.12.2008(Sunday)
13. S.O. (Accounts) Examination, 2008 Section Officer (Accounts) in O/o CAG 13.09.2008

 

10.10.2008 1st Week of January, 2009
14. Deputy Field Officer Exam.,2008 Deputy Field Officer 11.10.2008 07.11.2008 March, 2009

LIMITED DEPARTMENTAL EXAMINATIONS,2008

S.No. Name of Examination Date of Advertisement Closing Date Date of Examination
1. UD Grade Ltd. Departmental Examination, 2008 17.11.07 14.12.07 19.03.08
2. Grade ‘C’ Steno. Ltd. Departmental Examination, 2008 26.04.08 30.05.08 10.08.08
3. Clerks Grade (For Group ‘D’ Staff only) Examination, 2008. 04.10.08 07.11.08 January, 2009 Last week

Madhya Pradesh Patwari Selection Test, 2008 (Aug. 24)
Bank of Maharashtra Clerical Cadre Exam. (Aug. 24)
Reserve Bank of India (Grade B) Officers Recruitment Test (Aug. 24)
Bank of India P.O. Exam. (Aug. 24)
Chhattisgarh APPO Exam (Aug. 24)
M.P. PSC Assistant Conservator of Forest and Forest Ranger Exam., 2008 (Aug.)
West Bengal Judicial Service Preliminary Exam., 2008 (Aug.)
S.S.C. Data Entry Operator Exam., 2008 (Aug. 31)
Allahabad Bank Clerical Cadre Exam. (Aug. 31)
L.I.C. Assistant Recruitment Test (Southern Zone, Chennai; Western Zone Mumbai) (Aug. 31)
U. P. National Means-cum-Merit Scholarship Exam., 2008 (Aug. 31) (Closing Date : 31 July, 2008)
M. P. Guruji/Paryaveshaka/Anudeshaka Eligibility Test (Aug. 31)
Recruitment of Probationary Officers in Associate Bank of State Bank of India (Main) Exam. (Sept. 7)
Union Bank of India P.O. and Asstt. General Manager (Marketing) Examinations (Sept. 7)
L.I.C. Assistant Recruitment Test (East Central Zone : Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa) (Sept. 7)
Himachal Pradesh JBT Common Entrance Test, 2008 (Sept. 7)
RRB Jammu – Srinagar commercial clerk,ticket collector and train clerk exam (Sept. 7)
U.P.S.C. Combined Defence Services Exam., (II) 2008 (Sept. 14)
Andhra Bank Probationary Officers Recruitment Test (Sept. 14)
Dena Bank Probationary Officers Recruiment Test (Sept. 21)
L.I.C. Assistant Recruitment Test (North Zone, New Delhi; North Central Zone, Kanpur) (Sept. 21)
SSC Combined Graduate Level (mains ) Exam (Sept. 27 & 28)
Andhra Bank Clerical Cadre Examination (Sept. 28)
Indian Air Force Airmen Group X (Technical) Exam. (Sept.)
Artificer Apprentices Recruitment Test in Indian Navy (Sept.-Oct.)
U.P.S.C. CPF Assistant Commandants Exam., 2008 (Oct. 5)
Bank Of Baroda Probationary Exam. (Oct. 5)
Uttar Pradesh P.C.S. (APO) Pre. Exam., 2007 (Oct. 12)
West Bengal Judicial Service Final Exam., 2008 (Oct.)
Rajasthan Patwar Competitive Exam (Oct.)
S.S.C. CPO Sub-Inspectors Examination, 2008 (Nov. 9)
National Talent Search Examination, 2009 (Class VIII) (Nov. 16) (Closing Date : 30 Aug., 2008)
Indian Air Force Airmen Group ‘Y’ Trades Exam. (Nov.)
RAS/RTS (Pre.) Examination, 2008 (Dec. 21) (Closing Date : 14 Aug., 2008)
Jawahar
Navodaya Vidyalaya Entrance Examination, 2009 (Class IX) (Feb. 8, 2009) (Closing Date : 30 Dec., 2008)
NCERT National Talent Search Exam -2009 Class VIII (Second Term) ( May 2009)

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HARYANA GRAMIN BANK OFFICER  2008 SOLVED 

PAPER (HELD ON 08-06-2008)

GENERAL AWARENESS

1. ‘Food For Oil’ programme running in which of the following countries was in news recently ?
 (A) Kuwait
 (B) Iran
 (C) Iraq
 (D) Lebanon
 (E) None of these
 
 2. The ‘Supreme Court of India’ recently declared which of the following proclamations unconstitutional ?
 (A) Formation of an enquiry commission to probe Volcker Reports
 (B) Dissolution of Bihar Assembly
 (C) Setting up another commission in place of Phukan Commission
 (D) Setting up a commission headed by an eminent diplomat to investigate recent Bomb Blast in Delhi instead of allowing CBI to do the same
 (E) None of these
 
 3. Which of the following is true about the recent discussion on the tariff reduction formulae proposed at the WTO ?
 (A) India accepted the formulae presented by South Africa as it more or less matches with the formulae presented by it. South Africa was given the responsibility to find an amicably acceptable solution to the same
 (B) India along with several others presented a formulae which was accepted by the USA but the EU refused to accept it
 (C) USA, Australia and EU presented a formulae which is not acceptable to India
 (D) India wishes to resign from the membership of the WTO as it is not ready sacrifice the interests of the agriculturists of India
 (E) None of these
 
 4. Which of the following European Countries was recently in news as violent riots broke out there ?
 (A) Italy
 (B) Germany
 (C) Spain
 (D) France
 (E) None of these
 
 5. Sunil Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Year’ by which of the following news paper/magazines ?
 (A) Businessworld
 (B) Business India
 (C) Economic Times
 (D) Business Standard
 (E) None of these
 
 6. Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann won the ‘Nobel Prize-2005’ for their contribution in the field of—
 (A) Physics
 (B) Economics
 (C) Chemistry
 (D) Literature
 (E) None of these
 
 ]7. India, recently decided to conduct a joint air exercise with which of the following countries ?
 (The exercise was in news recently as a group of people was not in favour of such joint ventures)
 (A) Britain
 (B) Sri Lanka
 (C) China
 (D) France
 (E) USA
 
 8. India wants that the UN Security Council must have at least—
 (A) 5 permanent members including India and China
 (B) 7 permanent members including India and China
 (C) 9 permanent members including India and China
 (D) 11 permanent members including India and Pakistan
 (E) 15 permanent members in both permanent and non-permanent category
 
 9. Which of the following states was badly hit by a killer earthquake in October 2005 ?
 (A) Himachal Pradesh
 (B) Punjab
 (C) Gujarat
 (D) Haryana
 (E) Jammu & Kashmir
 
 10. R. K. Surati who won four Gold Medals in a Championship held in Pretoria recently is associated with which of the following games/sports ?
 (A) Rifle Shooting
 (B) Archery
 (C) Power lifting
 (D) 400 mt. Race
 (E) None of these
 
 11. Which of the following companies is not an IT/Software company ?
 (A) Infosys
 (B) Wipro
 (C) NIIT
 (D) Rolex
 (E) All are IT/Software Companies
 
 12. Which of the following is not a banking/finance related term ?
 (A) NPA
 (B) NAV
 (C) Liquidity
 (D) NAFTA
 (E) IPO
 
 13. Rahul Dravid was appointed the Captain of the Indian Cricket Team for one day series against which of the following ?
 (1) Sri Lanka
 (2) South Africa
 (3) Australia
 (A) Only (1)
 (B) Only (2)
 (C) Only (1) and (2)
 (D) Only (3)
 (E) (1), (2) and (3) all
 
 14. ‘Nalchik’ which was recently in news, is a city in—
 (A) Italy
 (B) France
 (C) Germany
 (D) China
 (E) Russia
 
 15. Anju Bobby George won Gold Medal in 16th Asian Atheletics Meet held recently. The meet was organized in—
 (A) South Korea
 (B) India
 (C) China
 (D) Pakistan
 (E) None of these
 
 16. Who amongst the following is the Chairman of the Central Information Commission (CIC) set up recently under the Right to Information Act ?
 (A) Sam Pitroda
 (B) M. S. Swaminathan
 (C) Rakesh Mohan
 (D) Wajahat Habibullah
 (E) None of these
 
 17. The 13th SAARC meet was held in—
 (A) Dhaka
 (B) Kathmandu
 (C) Islamabad
 (D) New Delhi
 (E) None of these
 
 18. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘The Mathematical Theory of Black Holes’ ? (The author is regarded a great astrophysicists of the modern times)
 (A) Dr. C. V. Raman
 (B) Dr. J. V. Narlikar
 (C) Dr. S. Chandrashekhar
 (D) Dr. Homi Jehangir Bhabha
 (E) Dr. Vikram Sarabhai
 
 19. Asian Junior Table Tennis Championship matches were played recently in—
 (A) China
 (B) India
 (C) South Korea
 (D) Singapore
 (E) None of these
 
 20. Mr. Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri is the—
 (A) External Affairs Minister of Pakistan
 (B) External Affairs Minister of Bangladesh
 (C) Home Minister of Pakistan
 (D) Home Minister of Bangladesh
 (E) None of these

1. (E) 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (B)
5. (C)
Sunil Bharti Mittal is adjudged the ‘Business Leader of the Award’ by the Economic Times news paper in the year 2005.
6. (B) The Nobel Prize winners in Economics in the field of ‘Game Theory Analysis’ in the year 2005 were Thomas C. Schelling and Robert J. Aumann (Jointly).
7. (C) 8. (C) 9. (E) 10. (C) 11. (D) 12. (D) 13. (E) 14. (E) 15. (A) 16. (D) 17. (A)18. (C) 19. (C) 20. (E)

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SSC SECTION OFFICER (COMMERCIAL AUDIT) EXAM

 

PART I : GENERAL AWARENESS

1. Article 17 of the constitution of India provides for

(a) equality before law.

(b) equality of opportunity in matters of public employment.

(c) abolition of titles.

(d) abolition of untouchability.

2. Article 370 of the constitution of India provides for

(a) temporary provisions for Jammu & Kashmir.

(b) special provisions in respect of Nagaland.

(c) special provisions in respect of Manipur.

(d) provisions in respect of financial emergency.

3. How many permanent members are there in Security Council?

(a) Three

(b) Five

(c) Six

(d) Four

4. The United Kingdom is a classic example of a/an

(a) aristocracy

(b) absolute monarchy

(c) constitutional monarchy

(d) polity.

5. Social Contract Theory was advocated by

(a) Hobbes, Locke and Rousseau.

(b) Plato, Aristotle and Hegel.

(c) Mill, Bentham and Plato.

(d) Locke, Mill and Hegel.

6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is elected by the

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister.

(c) Members of both Houses of the Parliament.

(d) Members of the Lok Sabha.

7. Who is called the ‘Father of History’?

(a) Plutarch

(b) Herodotus

(c) Justin

(d) Pliny

8. The Vedas are known as

(a) Smriti.

(b) Sruti.

(c) Jnana.

(d) Siksha.

9. The members of Estimate Committee are

(a) elected from the Lok Sabha only.

(b) elected from the Rajya Sabha only.

(c) elected from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.

(d) nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

10. Who is the chief advisor to the Governor?

(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

(b) Chief Minister.

(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

(d) President.

11. Foreign currency which has a tendency of quick migration is called

(a) Scarce currency

(b) Soft currency.

(c) Gold currency

(d) Hot currency.

12. Which of the following is a better measurement of Economic Development?

(a) GDP

(b) Disposable income

(c) NNP

(d) Per capita income

13. In India, disguised unemployment is generally observed in

(a) the agriculture sector.

(b) the factory sector.

(c) the service sector.

(d) All these sectors.

14. If the commodities manufactured in Surat are sold in Mumbai or Delhi then it is

(a) Territorial trade.

(b) Internal trade.

(c) International trade.

(d) Free trade.

15. The famous slogan “GARIBI HATAO” (Remove Poverty) was launched during the

(a) First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)

(b) Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)

(c) Fourth Five-Year Plan (1969-74)

(d) Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)

16. Bank Rate refers to the interest rate at which

(a) Commercial banks receive deposits from the public.

(b) Central bank gives loans to Commercial banks.

(c) Government loans are floated.

(d) Commercial banks grant loans to their customers.

17. All the goods which are scare and limited in supply are called

(a) Luxury goods.

(b) Expensive goods.

(c) Capital goods.

(d) Economic goods.

18. The theory of monopolistic competition is developed by

(a) E.H.Chamberlin

(b) P.A.Samuelson

(c) J.Robinson

(d) A.Marshall

19. Smoke is formed due to

(a) solid dispersed in gas

(b) solid dispersed in liquid.

(c) gas dispersed in solid

(d) gas dispersed in gas.

20. Which of the following chemical is used in photography?

(a) Aluminum hydroxide

(b) Silver bromide

(c) Potassium nitrate

(d) Sodium chloride.

21. Gober gas (Biogas) mainly contains

(a) methane and ethane

(b) methane and butane.

(c) propane and butane

(d) methane, ethane, propane and propylene.

22. Preparation of ‘Dalda or Vanaspati’ ghee from vegetable oil utilises the following process

(a) Hydrolysis

(b) Oxidation

(c) Hydrogenation

(d) Ozonoloysis

23. Which colour is the complementary colour of yellow?

(a) Blue

(b) Green

(c) Orange

(d) Red

24. During washing of cloths, we use indigo due to its

(a) better cleaning action.

(b) proper pigmental composition.

(c) high glorious nature.

(d) very low cost.

25. Of the following Indian satellites, which one is intended for long distance telecommunication and for transmitting TV programmes?

(a) INSAT-A

(b) Aryabhata

(c) Bhaskara

(d) Rohini

26. What is the full form of ‘AM’ regarding radio broadcasting?

(a) Amplitude Movement

(b) Anywhere Movement

(c) Amplitude Matching

(d) Amplitude Modulation.

27. Who is the author of Gandhi’s favorite Bhajan Vaishnava jana to tene kahiye?

(a) Purandar Das

(b) Shyamal Bhatt

(c) Narsi Mehta

(d) Sant Gyaneshwar

28. Which one of the following is not a mosquito borne disease?

(a) Dengu fever

(b) Filariasis

(c) Sleeping sickness

(d) Malaria

29. What is the principal one of aluminium?

(a) Dolomite

(b) Copper

(c) Lignite

(d) Bauxite

30. Which country is the facilitator for peace talks between the LTTE and the Sri Lankan Government?

(a) The US (b) Norway

(c) India (d) The UK

31. The highest body which approves the Five-Year Plan in India is the

(a) Planning Commission

(b) National Development Council

(c) The Union Cabinet

(d) Finance Ministry

32. Ceteris Paribus is Latin for

(a) ” all other things variable “

(b) “other things increasing”

(c) “other things being equal”

 (d) “all other things decreasing”

33. Who has been conferred the Dada Saheb Phalke Award (Ratna) for the year 2007?

(a) Dev Anand

(b) Rekha

(c) Dilip Kumar

(d) Shabana Azmi

34. Purchasing Power Parity theory is related with

(a) Interest Rate.

(b) Bank Rate.

(c) Wage Rate.

(d) Exchange Rate.

35. India’s biggest enterprise today is

(a) the Indian Railways

(b) the Indian Commercial Banking System.

(c) the India Power Sector

(d) the India Telecommunication System.

36. The official agency responsible for estimating National Income in India is

(a) Indian Statistical Institute

(b) Reserve Bank of India.

(c) Central Statistical Organisation.

(d) National Council for Applied Economics and Research.

37. Which of the following has the sole right of issuing currency (except one rupee coins and notes) in India?

(a) The Governor of India

(b) The Planning Commission

(c) The State Bank of India

(d) The Reserve Bank of India

38. In the budget figures of the Government of India the difference between total expenditure and total receipt is called.

(a) Fiscal deficit

(b) Budget deficit

(c) Revenue deficit

 (d) Current deficit

39. Excise duty on a commodity is payable with reference to its

(a) production

(b) production and sale.

(c) Production and transportation.

(d) Production, transportation and sale.

40. In the US, the President is elected by

(a) The Senate

(b) Universal Adult Franchise.

(c) The House of Representatives.

(d) The Congress.

Answers

1. (d)      2. (d)      3. (b)    4. (c)     5. (a)     6. (d)     7. (b)    8. (b)     9. (a)    10. (b)

11. (d)     12. (a)  13. (a)  14. (b)   15. (c)   16. (a)  17. (d)    18. (a)  19. (b)    20. (a)

21. (c)    22. (b)    23. (b)   24. (a)   25. (d)   26. (c)  27. (c)   28. (d)  29. (b)   30. (a)

31. (c)    32. (c)    33. (c)  34. (a)    35. (c)    36. (d)  37. (b)   38. (a)   39. (a)  40. (b)

 

 

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